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NCLEX-RN PDF DEMO:

QUESTION NO: 1
Three weeks following discharge, a male client is readmitted to the psychiatric unit for depression. His wife stated that he had threatened to kill himself with a handgun. As the nurse admits him to the unit, he says, "I wish I were dead because I am worthless to everyone; I guess I am just no good." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate at this time?
A. "I don't think you are worthless. I'm glad to see you, and we will help you."
B. "Don't you think this is a sign of your illness?"
C. "I know with your wife and new baby that you do have a lot to live for."
D. "You've been feeling sad and alone for some time now?"
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A)
This response does not acknowledge the client's feelings.
(B)
This is a closed question and does not encourage communication.
(C)
This response negates the client's feelings and does not require a response from the client. (D) This acknowledges the client's implied thoughts and feelings and encourages a response.

QUESTION NO: 2
The primary focus of nursing interventions for the child experiencing sickle cell crisis is aimed toward:
A. Maintaining an adequate level of hydration
B. Providing pain relief
C. Preventing infection
D. O2 therapy
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Maintaining the hydration level is the focus for nursing intervention because dehydration enhances the sickling process. Both oral and parenteral fluids are used. (B) The pain is a result of the sickling process. Analgesics or narcotics will be used for symptom relief, but the underlying cause of the pain will be resolved with hydration. (C) Serious bacterial infections may result owing to splenic dysfunction. This is true at all times, not just during the acute period of a crisis. (D) O2 therapy is used for symptomatic relief of the hypoxia resulting from the sickling process. Hydration is the primary intervention to alleviate the dehydration that enhances the sickling process.

QUESTION NO: 3
A client has been taking lithium 300 mg po bid for the past two weeks. This morning her lithium level was 1 mEq/L. The nurse should:
A. Notify the physician immediately
B. Hold the morning lithium dose and continue to observe the client
C. Administer the morning lithium dose as scheduled
D. Obtain an order for benztropine (Cogentin)
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) There is no need to phone the physician because the lithium level is within therapeutic range and because there are no indications of toxicity present. (B) There is no reason to withhold the lithium because the blood level is within therapeutic range. Also, it is necessary to give the medication as scheduled to maintain adequate blood levels. (C) The lab results indicate that the client's lithium level is within therapeutic range (0.2-1.4 mEq/L), so the medication should be given as ordered. (D)
Benztropine is an antiparkinsonism drug frequently given to counteractextrapyramidal symptoms associated with the administration of antipsychotic drugs (not lithium).

QUESTION NO: 4
A client states to his nurse that "I was told by the doctor not to take one of my drugs because it seems to have caused decreasing blood cells." Based on this information, which drug might the nurse expect to be discontinued?
A. Prednisone
B. Timolol maleate (Blocadren)
C. Garamycin (Gentamicin)
D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Prednisone is not linked with hematological side effects. (B) Timolol, a -adrenergic blocker is metabolized by the liver. It has not been linked to blood dyscrasia. (C) Gentamicin is ototoxic and nephrotoxic. (D) Phenytoin usage has been linked to blood dyscrasias such as aplastic anemia. The drug most commonly linked to aplastic anemia is chloramphenicol (Chlormycetin).

QUESTION NO: 5
A client with a diagnosis of C-4 injury has been stabilized and is ready for discharge. Because this client is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia, he and his family should be instructed to assess for and report:
A. Dizziness and tachypnea
B. Circumoral pallor and lightheadedness
C. Headache and facial flushing
D. Pallor and itching of the face and neck
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Tachypnea is not a symptom. (B) Circumoral pallor is not a symptom. (C) Autonomic dysreflexia is an uninhibited and exaggerated reflex of the autonomic nervous system to stimulation, which results in vasoconstriction and elevated blood pressure. (D) Pallor and itching are not symptoms.

確かに、Microsoft MD-102認定試験に合格することは困難なことです。 NCLEXのSalesforce Customer-Data-Platformの認定試験に合格すれば、就職機会が多くなります。 SAP C_THR81_2311 - この試験が非常に困難ですが、実は試験の準備時に一生懸命である必要はありません。 Microsoft PL-600 - あなたの全部な需要を満たすためにいつも頑張ります。 IT職員の皆さんにとって、この試験のJuniper JN0-252認証資格を持っていないならちょっと大変ですね。

Updated: May 27, 2022