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RC0-C02 PDF DEMO:

QUESTION NO: 1
ABC Company must achieve compliance for PCI and SOX. Which of the following would BEST allow the organization to achieve compliance and ensure security? (Select THREE).
A. Establish a list of users that must work with each regulation
B. Establish a list of devices that must meet each regulation
C. Centralize management of all devices on the network
D. Compartmentalize the network
E. Establish a company framework
F. Apply technical controls to meet compliance with the regulation
Answer: B, D, F
Explanation:
Payment card industry (PCI) compliance is adherence to a set of specific security standards that were developed to protect card information during and after a financial transaction. PCI compliance is required by all card brands.
There are six main requirements for PCI compliance. The vendor must:
Build and maintain a secure network
Protect cardholder data
Maintain a vulnerability management program
Implement strong access control measures
Regularly monitor and test networks
Maintain an information security policy
To achieve PCI and SOX compliance you should:
Establish a list of devices that must meet each regulation. List all the devices that contain the sensitive data.
Compartmentalize the network. Compartmentalize the devices that contain the sensitive data to form a security boundary.
Apply technical controls to meet compliance with the regulation. Secure the data as required.
Incorrect Answers:
A: It is not necessary to establish a list of users that must work with each regulation. All users should be trained to manage sensitive data. However, PCI and SOX compliance is more about the security of the data on the computers that contain the data.
C: Central management of all devices on the network makes device management easier for administrators. However, it is not a requirement for PCI and SOX compliance.
E: A company framework is typically related to the structure of employee roles and departments. It is not a requirement for PCI and SOX compliance.
References:
http://searchcompliance.techtarget.com/definition/PCl-compliance

QUESTION NO: 2
A completely new class of web-based vulnerabilities has been discovered. Claims have been made that all common web-based development frameworks are susceptible to attack. Proof-of- concept details have emerged on the Internet. A security advisor within a company has been asked to provide recommendations on how to respond quickly to these vulnerabilities. Which of the following
BEST describes how the security advisor should respond?
A. Assess the reliability of the information source, likelihood of exploitability, and impact to hosted data.
Attempt to exploit via the proof-of-concept code. Consider remediation options.
B. Hire an independent security consulting agency to perform a penetration test of the web servers.
Advise management of any 'high' or 'critical' penetration test findings and put forward recommendations for mitigation.
C. Review vulnerability write-ups posted on the Internet. Respond to management with a recommendation to wait until the news has been independently verified by software vendors providing the web application software.
D. Notify all customers about the threat to their hosted data. Bring the web servers down into
"maintenance mode" until the vulnerability can be reliably mitigated through a vendor patch.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The first thing you should do is verify the reliability of the claims. From there you can assess the likelihood of the vulnerability affecting your systems. If it is determined that your systems are likely to be affected by the exploit, you need to determine what impact an attack will have on your hosted data. Now that you know what the impact will be, you can test the exploit by using the proof-of concept code. That should help you determine your options for dealing with the threat (remediation)
.
Incorrect Answers:
B: While penetration testing your system is a good idea, it is unnecessary to hire an independent security consulting agency to perform a penetration test of the web servers. You know what the vulnerability is so you can test it yourself with the proof-of-concept code.
C: Security response should be proactive. Waiting for the threat to be verified by the software vendor will leave the company vulnerable if the vulnerability is real.
D: Bringing down the web servers would prevent the vulnerability but would also render the system useless. Furthermore, customers would expect a certain level of service and may even have a service level agreement in place with guarantees of uptime.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John
Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 375-376

QUESTION NO: 3
A company has implemented data retention policies and storage quotas in response to their legal department's requests and the SAN administrator's recommendation. The retention policy states all email data older than 90 days should be eliminated. As there are no technical controls in place, users have been instructed to stick to a storage quota of 500Mb of network storage and
200Mb of email storage. After being presented with an e-discovery request from an opposing legal council, the security administrator discovers that the user in the suit has 1Tb of files and 300Mb of email spanning over two years. Which of the following should the security administrator provide to opposing council?
A. Delete files and email exceeding policy thresholds and turn over the remaining files and email.
B. Delete email over the policy threshold and hand over the remaining emails and all of the files.
C. Provide the 1Tb of files on the network and the 300Mb of email files regardless of age.
D. Provide the first 200Mb of e-mail and the first 500Mb of files as per policy.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
An administrator is tasked with securing several website domains on a web server. The administrator elects to secure www.example.com, mail.example.org, archive.example.com, and www.example.org with the same certificate. Which of the following would allow the administrator to secure those domains with a single issued certificate?
A. Intermediate Root Certificate
B. Wildcard Certificate
C. EV x509 Certificate
D. Subject Alternative Names Certificate
Answer: D
Explanation:
Subject Alternative Names let you protect multiple host names with a single SSL certificate. Subject
Alternative Names allow you to specify a list of host names to be protected by a single SSL certificate.
When you order the certificate, you will specify one fully qualified domain name in the common name field.
You can then add other names in the Subject Alternative Names field.
Incorrect Answers:
A: An Intermediate Root Certificate is used to trust an intermediate CA (Certification Authority). The
Intermediate root CA can issue certificates but the Intermediate Root Certificate itself cannot be used to secure multiple domains on a web server.
B: A wildcard certificate can be used to secure multiple domain names within the same higher level domain. For example: a wildcard certificate "* .example.com" can secure an unlimited number of domains that end in 'example.com' such as domainl.example.com, domain2.example.com etc. A wildcard certificate cannot be used to secure the domains listed in this question.
C: The certificate used to secure the domains will be an x509 certificate but it will not be a standard
EV certificate. EV stands for extended validation. With a non-EV certificate, the issuing CA just ensures that you own the domains that you want to secure. With an EV certificate, further checks are carried out such as checks on your company. EV certificates take longer to issue due to the extra checks but the EV certificate provides extra guarantees to your customers that you are who you say you are. However, a standard EV certificate only secures a single domain.

QUESTION NO: 5
A security administrator is tasked with increasing the availability of the storage networks while enhancing the performance of existing applications. Which of the following technologies should the administrator implement to meet these goals? (Select TWO).
A. LUN masking
B. Snapshots
C. vSAN
D. Dynamic disk pools
E. Multipath
F. Deduplication
Answer: D, E
Explanation:
We can use dynamic disk pools (DDP) to increase availability and improve performance compared to traditional RAID. Multipathing also improves availability by creating multiple paths to the storage (in case one path fails) and it improves the performance by aggregating the performance of the multiple paths.
DDP dynamically distributes all data, spare capacity, and protection information across a pool of drives.
Effectively, DDP is a new type of RAID level, built on RAID 6. It uses an intelligent algorithm to define where each chunk of data should reside. In traditional RAID, drives are organized into arrays, and logical drives are written across stripes on the physical drives in the array. Hot spares contain no data until a drive fails, leaving that spare capacity stranded and without a purpose. In the event of a drive failure, the data is recreated on the hot spare, significantly impacting the performance of all drives in the array during the rebuild process.
With DDP, each logical drive's data and spare capacity is distributed across all drives in the pool, so all drives contribute to the aggregate 10 of the logical drive, and the spare capacity is available to all logical drives. In the event of a physical drive failure, data is reconstructed throughout the disk pool.
Basically, the data that had previously resided on the failed drive is redistributed across all drives in the pool. Recovery from a failed drive may be up to ten times faster than a rebuild in a traditional
RAID set, and the performance degradation is much less during the rebuild.
In computer storage, multipath 1/0 is a fault-tolerance and performance-enhancement technique that defines more than one physical path between the CPU in a computer system and its massstorage devices through the buses, controllers, switches, and bridge devices connecting them.
As an example, a SCSI hard disk drive may connect to two SCSI controllers on the same computer, or a disk may connect to two Fibre Channel ports. Should one controller, port or switch fail, the operating system can route the 1/0 through the remaining controller, port or switch transparently and with no changes visible to the applications.
Incorrect Answers:
A: LUN masking is used to control which LUNs are visible to specific servers. It does not improve the availability of the storage networks or the performance of existing applications.
B: A snapshot is a point in time image of the data on a SAN used for backup or recovery purposes. It does not improve the availability of the storage networks or the performance of existing applications.
C: A vSAN is local storage on hypervisor servers combined together to create a "virtual SAN". A vSAN does not improve the availability of the storage networks or the performance of existing applications.
F: Deduplication is the process of eliminating multiple copies of the same data to save storage space.
It does not improve the availability of the storage networks or the performance of existing applications.
References:
http://blog.glcomp.com/2013/06/what-is-dynamic-disk-pooling.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multipath_l/0

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Updated: May 28, 2022